Hi experts,
Is there anyway that we can link the business partner created in CFM with customer or vendor?
If that is so, how?? It is because, im trying to assign the role of business partner to the FI Customer/ FI vendor, but the field at the customer tab is deemed. Why? Is there any wrong??
Appreciate your expertise.
Thanks!
Hi experts
I have created business partner from customer through BP & FLBPD1. Now I have to remove the link between BP & customer. Since any loan created with BP, the accounting entries are generated in the linked customer. Already loan is entered in the said BP and repaid also. so kindly advice.
regards,
Dear Gurus,
Is SAP CFM is a seperate server?
Regards
Anand
Hi all,
Just wanna ask you regarding error during payment run in F111.
Currently we are doing something in FI in order to support BCS requirement; which all the financial posting that involved balance sheet account must be fill up or having the mandatory profit center. For this purpose, we are creating new validation which will be activated starting 1.1.2011, and currently we are doing the testing on all modules including CFM.
For this purpose, we already identify those balance sheet account that now having blank profit center and ask user to give the default value for it, for us to config it in a FAGL3KEH table.
For those balance sheet account that need to pass the validation (in case user need more time to think of the default value), we already create one set ID to exclude those balance sheet accounts.
In CFM, i already created one bank to bank transaction (bank transfer) for this testing. Example: Company A (GL acct 58010120) >> Company B (GL acct 58010140)
When looked into FAGL3KEH, the only default value 58010120 and the rest of it (58010121, 58010122, 58010140, 58010141, 58010142) being inserted in the set ID. Supposed when i do the payment run at F111, system should passed the posting, but there is an error stated 'Balancing field "Profit Center" in line item 001 not filled'. When ask to one of my colleague, he said that this is due to the CFM's config, not the validation. Can you help me? I don't know where to check as i believe the config for bank to bank transfer is simple and should be no problem. Is there any suggestion??
Thanks.
Hi All,
When I am viewing my Fixed Deposit in TPM12, derived flow (WHT) amount is not added in Nominal Amount - Interest Capitalization however it is included in Amount in Position Curency - Interest Capitalization(Column 4).
This causes to show the diferrence in Nominal and Position currency Amount.
Any pointers if any specific thing missing in customizing.
I am using USGAAP acc principle.
Kindly help...
Hi,
I am trying to edit cash flows in FD
(since the actual amount as per bank statement is rounded off and thus I have to adjust Interest,Final Repayment Amount and Withholding tax.)
I am able to edit and two of the three flows but getting error when I am trying to edit and save 3rd flow.
Scenario 1:
Edit Interest and Edit WHT=> Save | Error when I edit and try to save Final Repay amount.
Scenario 2:
Edit Interest and Edit repayment=> save | Error when I edit and try to save WHT)
Scenario 3:
Edirt WHT and Edit Repayment ==> Save | Error when I edit and try to save Interest
Folowing are the errors thrown:
(Error 1)
Message no. FTR_TRD012
Processing cannot be carried out successfully since an error occurred when updating position management. The cause of this message is explained in another error message.
(Error 2)
Message no. TPM_TRL062
A position in accounting code IN03, valuation area 001, is short on 04.01.2013.
Also, when I look into TPM12, I see that Nominal amount and amount in Position currency is different (difference equal to WHT amount)
Nominal amount : Interest only | Amount in Position Currency : Interest + WHT
Kindly help.....
Dear expert,
We upload the exposure from the loan interest rate instrument into the hedge plan.
The exposures (financial liability) consists of interest (cash flow) and final repayment (position).
It's hedged against CCS contract with flow type 1200 & 1120 at end term.
When perform prospective effectiveness test (THM80 and hedge strategy 300 clean price) on the first month end, the detail log shows the calculation as below:
1) hedging instrument -> value at end relationship (which is 0) - NPV of outgoing and incoming - accrual
2) hedge item -> value at end relationship (which is 0) - NPV of only outgoing (exposure) - accrual
So the ratio will not be effective since the value change of hedging instrument contain the difference between positive (incoming) flow and negative (outgoing) flow but the value change (denominator) is only the value of negative flow.
How can we handle this case?
Hedge strategy should be something else to make this effective?
Please advise.
Thank you.
PNS
Folks,
I have created FX Spot transaction (60A, ttype 101) to sell Euro and buy USD with cash settlement in USD. We have a favorable exchange rate so we expect net settlement (gain) accounting entry in USD. Example - Debit Cash and Credit Clearing a/c.
When I run TBB1, system is creating two GL entries and two separate documents: one entry for cash settlement in USD and second entry for Euro amount. Also both entries have same update type FX1031+
My question is why system is creating second GL entry in Euro? How come both GL entries have same update type FX1031+?
Thanks in advance,
Amit
Hi Team,
In money markets we used to post the charges in other flows, were we give the % and the base amount by which the system will calculate the charges.
But in securities we dont have the option to give the % by whcih system will calculate the charges.
Please let us know how to get the base amount and the % field in other flows.
Regards,
Venkat
Hi All,
I want a BADI/User Exit for FTR_EDIT/FTR_CREATE transactions to validate company code and partner fields.
please provide your suggestions.
Hi ,
As per my client requirement we have configured mark to mark procedure for security valuation in the system with the following critiria...
We have created treasury bill as zero bond instument in sap as client want to capture issuer and custodian and Security class details.
and every month they want to distribute the discount amount as amortization.
Here question is is it right approch to post the discount as amortization in month end .
and we have some issue on security valuation as follows.
Treasury Bill Start Date:21=Dec-2012
Treasury Bill maturity date:21-Mar r-2013
Face value:100000000
Book value:98270717
Price rate:98,270717 %
Price rate on 31122012= 98.242
When i run run TPM for the 21-12-2012 security valuation is posting wrongly as =1 758 000,00
Actually amount needs to post as defference between bookvalue and market value.
(10000000*98.270717/100= 98270717)-( 10000000*98.242/100=98242000)=28717
Insted of posting 28717 it is calculating-1758000(calculating on face value)
Please give the inputs as any thing is miss in my config.
Regards,
Krishna Reddy T
Hello Treasury Experts,
Can you advise on this query please?
We are implementing the Treasury Transaction Manager component. We run transaction TPM60 to calculate the NPV of the Forward Transaction. We specify an Evaluation Type on the TPM60 entry screen. This Evaluation Type has been setup in the Market Risk Analyzer to call a Z function module which calculates the NPV in line with FAS157.
We then run transaction TPM1 to post the accounting documents. We would expect/want TPM1 to use the NPV values calculated in transaction TPM60. However TPM1 is not picking up the NPV value we have calculated in TPM60.
Can you advise why TPM1 is not posting the valuation calculated in transaction TPM60? What are the settings that must be made to ensure the value calculated in TPM60 is subsequently used in the TPM1 valuation postings?
If you need some further details please let me know.
Appreciate any guidance/help you can offer here.
Thanks
Mik.
Dear Sapguru,
Can somboy let me know where I can find SAP Inhouse Cash documentatiion for configuring the module.
Thanks in Advamce.
Regards,
Rama
Dear All,
We have a scenario where we have to make partial utilization of forward contract.
Eg:
On 01.12.2012 a forward cover is booked for USD 100000 @ 50 with maturity date on 1st May 2013.
On 02.02.2013, say USD 20000 @ 51 is utilized for paying off a loan.
Further, we have to record the utilization charges as well.
Should we have to make a roll over for USD 80000 (balance value in contract)? If yes, then can you explain what will be the process?
If Rollover, then should we change the Netting transaction (103) amount to USD 20000 and Roll over (104) to USD 80000 with the same maturity date?
In case there are few more utilizations before the maturity date then should the above process be repeated?
How to account for the gain or loss from the utilized portion?
Thanks,
Kamal P
Hi all,
may I kindly ask you to share your knowledge about SAP Portal Treasury functionality - what major functionality it covers, like Transaction manager, Cash management, etc. also, could you suggest some good reference material where you are able to compare it with standard SAP ECC6.0 Treasury functionality.
your support is highly appreciated.
Kind regards,
Renatas
Dear All,
We have created a forward contract and assigned to one exposure under a Hedge Plan.
The business requirement is, in future we will have new exposures created.
Now how to link the same transaction i.e forward contract to new exposures?
Thanks,
Kamal
Dear Experts,
How to assign a hedging transaction to the exposures?
I have done the following steps:
1. I have created a Hedge Plan in THMEX.
2. I have created raw exposures and transferred the versioned exposures to Hedge Management from TEM20.
3. Now I have created a transaction and inserted into the Existing Hedge Plan.
When I try to assign a transaction to the Hedge Plan from the Hedge Management tab, the system creates a new Hedged Item ID and Exposure ID. The transactions do not reflect in the exposures when I try to run TEM20 for analysis. I dont see any link between the Exposures and the Hedging instrument.
Please find attached screenshot.
What is it that I am doing wrong here?
Please help
Thanks,
Vinod P
Hello,
I already customized the system to get the NPV in transaction JBRX & AISGENKF, and the system already calculated the NPV, but my client ask me about the calculation formula that SAP used to get the NPV.
I was looking information and I found the following information:
The NPV can either be calculated via the Yield or the Discount , with the following formulas being used for linear discounting:
NPV calculation via yield :
NPV = Nominal value / (1 + interest rate/100 * days/daily basis)
NPV calculation via discount:
NPV = Nominal value * (1 - interest rate/100 * days/daily basis)
If exponential discounting is used for terms greater than one year, the following formulas are used:
NPV calculation via yield:
NPV=
Nominal value / (1 + interest rate/100) ** (days/daily basis)
NPV calculation via discount:
NPV =
Nominal value * (2 - (1 + interest rate/ 100) ** (days/daily basis)
Are those the formulas used in JBRX transaction? or where I could find this with more details?
Thanks,
Adriana
Hi Gurus,
I created a XML format for SEPA on DMEE (copy from standard SEPA_CT). I customized a payment method to use this format and I try to use on a payment. I run F110, proposal is created and payment is made, and file is generated, but I have the following problem:
. In FDTA the total amount of the file is the same than on the payment (for example 10.000)
. If there four vendors with two documents for each vendor, the XML file contains only data for the first payment. The fields for nº payments, etc has the value 1 instead of 4. The field for total amount of the file has the amount of the field payment.
. I try to debug the standard transaction FBPM and I see the program read four payments from REGUH and passed to FPAY table, all payments are passed to FM DMEE_WRITE_DOCUMENT (or something similar, now I haven't the exact name)
Any ideas?
Kind regards.
JM Cala.
Hello Treasury Experts,
Can you advise on this query please?
We are implementing the Treasury Transaction Manager component. We run transaction TPM60 to calculate the NPV of the Forward Transaction. We specify an Evaluation Type on the TPM60 entry screen. This Evaluation Type has been setup in the Market Risk Analyzer to call a Z function module which calculates the NPV in line with FAS157.
We then run transaction TPM1 to post the accounting documents. We would expect/want TPM1 to use the NPV values calculated in transaction TPM60. However TPM1 is not picking up the NPV value we have calculated in TPM60.
Can you advise why TPM1 is not posting the valuation calculated in transaction TPM60? What are the settings that must be made to ensure the value calculated in TPM60 is subsequently used in the TPM1 valuation postings?
If you need some further details please let me know.
Appreciate any guidance/help you can offer here.
Thanks
Mik.